under the law," kept the covenant which requires perfect obedience, then died for
our transgressions, and bequeathed to us his own inheritance. - Gal.iv,4; 1John
iii,4,5; Heb.ix,15-17; Luke xxii,20. But as this chapter is considered an important
proof that the law of God is abolished, we will state this view in its strength, and
examine it. - "1. The law had no existence prior to its being given from Mount
Sinai. - 2. It was only binding on literal Israel. - 3. It was to last only till the seed
should come to whom the promise was made; hence, it expired by limitation at
that point." - We answer to the first position, that men, though destitute of the
written law of God until the days of Moses, were counted sinners by God. And
"sin is the transgression of the law." - 1John iii,4. Again, if by the term the law
was "added," we are to understand that it had no existence prior to that time, the
inquiry arises, How are we to understand the next clause, which
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reads, "because of transgressions?" The Apostle has told us that where there is
no law, there is no transgression.- Rom.iv,15. This point may be fairly settled in
Romans ii, where Paul shows that in the judgment, all will be left without excuse;
for those who have not had the written law, have had at least the work of the law
written in their hearts.
To the next position we answer, that such a view would make the Apostle
contradict himself. He testifies, [Gal.iii,22,] "But the Scripture hath concluded all
under sin." Again, Rom.iii,19. Now we know that what things soever the law saith,
it saith to them who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, AND
ALL THE WORLD MAY BECOME GUILTY BEFORE GOD.
To the third point we reply, that God made his law the condition of the
covenant into which he entered with the literal seed of Abraham. Thus was an
addition made to the Abrahamic covenant, to continue till the seed should come,
to whom God made promise. But to teach that the law itself expired at that point,
would be a plain contradiction of clear testimony. Matt.v,17-19; Think not that I
am come to destroy the law. Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or tittle shall in
no wise pass from the law till all be fulfilled. Rom.iii,31; Do we then make void the
law through faith? God forbid; yea, we establish the law. Rom.vii,7; I had not
known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet. We here inquire, how
an abolished law could convict a man of transgression? And further, how could
the Apostle hold such a struggle with the law as he describes in Rom.vii, when
that law had ceased to exist? Further, how can the royal law convince men of sin
as transgressors, after God has abolished it? See James ii,8-11. A law,
embodying the moral perfections of the infinite Jehovah, must from its nature be
unchangeable and immutable like its author.
The sum of our opponents position may be fairly reduced to this proposition:-
The Jews were the only people amenable to the law of God. Hence, we say that
our opponents show them to be the only transgressors. For it is clear that those
only, who have the law, can be capable of transgressing it. To carry this point
further, we say that not only does this view make the
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Jews the only sinners, but it would show them to be the only persons redeemed
by Christ. For he died to redeem them that were under the law. - Gal.iv,5; iii,13.
