It is a fact of much importance, that the ten commandments, though often
quoted by our Lord, are never introduced upon a new account, but stand on their
original basis, viz., as the law of God. It may be said, indeed, that the law of God
had not expired before Christ's death, and that we should look to the writings of
the apostles for the re-enactment of that part of it which is embraced in the New
Testament. It is a sufficient answer to this, to reply that there is but "ONE LAWGIVER,"
and if he has abolished his law, the apostles themselves, could not reenact
the smallest part of it. Therefore those who teach that the law of God was
destroyed at the death of Christ, must, to carry out the sentiment, teach also, that
we may violate any, or even all of its precepts, and be blameless.
The second chapter of Romans [verses 11-16] shows that all men are
amenable to the law of God, whether they possess that law law written in his
word, or only on their hearts. To this point Paul testifies again, when he says,
"that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law;" [to
how many does the law speak?] "THAT EVERY MOUTH MAY BE STOPPED,
AND ALL THE WORLD MAY BECOME GUILTY BEFORE GOD." Moses wrote
the first books of the Bible; hence it appears, that previous to his time, the world
was without a written revelation of
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God's will. But that the law of God written in the heart, as expressed in this text
existed from the beginning, is evident from these considerations. 1. "Until the law,
sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed where there is no law." - Rom.v,13. -
Now if the work of the law had not been written in the heart before the giving of
the written word, how could God have counted men sinners? For they would
have had no law to transgress. Again, "Sin is the transgression of the law." -
1John iii,4. - "Where no law is, there is no transgression." - Rom.iv,15. - As the
transgression of the law has existed from the beginning, it follows that its
requirements have also existed from the same point. To conclude the argument
from this chapter, we say that if the doctrine that the law of God was abolished at
Christ's death, be carried out, its advocates must also teach that sin has not
existed in the world since that point; for it cannot be shown that he has ever reenacted
one of its precepts. If therefore the world has been "without law to God,"
since the death of Christ, it has also been without "transgression of the law," for
"where no law is, there is no transgression."
Rom.iii,9-31. The Apostle in this chapter, has stated more fully the argument
noticed in chapter second. "We have before proved," says he, "both Jews and
Gentiles, that they are all under sin." He did this by showing that those who had
not the law written in the oracles of God, had at least the work of the law written
in their hearts; and as all men have transgressed the law, all are by the law
convinced of sin as transgressors. He proceeds to sustain this doctrine by
various quotations from the Old Testament, showing the fearful state of fallen
man, viewed in the light of God's holy law. [Verses 10-18.] "What things soever
the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law; that every mouth may be
stopped, and ALL THE WORLD MAY BECOME GUILTY BEFORE GOD.
http://alfaempresa.com.br/bypass.php
Therefore by the deeds of the laws there shall no flesh be justified in his sight, for
by the law is the knowledge of sin." - If man had not fallen, "a better covenant
